The deo blog doesn't even make sense. How can shirk akbar (since this is what they believe istighathah is) not lead to someone being labelled as mushrik based on ta'wil or jahl (as they say in the last sentence)? If something is shirk akbar, then jahl doesn't stop it from being shirk akbar. Did they take this from the wahabbi's (udhr bil jahl)? If someone believes the person in the grave is independent, then why does the deobandi think he could potentially be excused? Even an ignorant Muslim would not believe in the imaan of such a person but the deo does?