alahazrat quotes a hadith with this wording in fatawa ridawiyyah, 12/331, however as is mentioned in the footnote, this hadith cannot be found in this wording, but rather with the wording that Allah does not love the men who taste and the women who taste.
my questions are:
1. is it possible to reconcile between the wording mentioned by alahazrat and the other wording, by understanding Allah not loving someone to be analogous to being cursed by Him?
2. is it permissible to quote the hadith with the wording mentioned by alahazrat?
i seek for mawlana @abu Hasan to answer, if possible
جزاکم الله خیرا
my questions are:
1. is it possible to reconcile between the wording mentioned by alahazrat and the other wording, by understanding Allah not loving someone to be analogous to being cursed by Him?
2. is it permissible to quote the hadith with the wording mentioned by alahazrat?
i seek for mawlana @abu Hasan to answer, if possible
جزاکم الله خیرا