I think it was explained on our forum that, no, it doesn't. because ahmad deedat knows there is no such thing in the bible, then his words are taken in that sense and not in the sense that, 'I am unsure whether it's in the bible or not, so if you find it for me, i'll convert.' saying that, one should be careful with such language. --- as for faraz, I know that both he and keller know of abu Hasan's reply to IKT, namely TKM. intellectual honesty dictates they shouldn't be quoting from keller's work any more because it has been proven that keller stumbled miserably in deriving rulings.
something similar: http://sunniport.com/index.php?thre...f-sheikh-ahmed-deedat.10140/page-2#post-37993 does it not entail making light of faith?
http://seekershub.org/ans-blog/2015/01/02/has-cantor-proved-the-muslim-theologians-wrong/ so then what does he have to say to his shaykh noah keller's "it is not intrinsically impossible but only contingently impossible" screed? incidentally, he just cited his grandshaykh in another answer on his site. http://seekershub.org/ans-blog/2015/01/02/what-are-the-consequences-of-an-oath-of-disbelief/
